I was going off this table: https://web.cgu.edu/faculty/gabler/toxicity%20Addiction%20of... (page 689), which does not include morphine. it's surprising that the margin is so much larger for morphine, since heroin is essentially a prodrug for morphine. the figures I found for morphine all seem to assume an oral ROA for morphine, but IV for heroin. perhaps that explains some of the difference? it could also be that the definition of "effective dose" is different in an abuse context vs. a medical one. also now that I go back and look more closely, it seems the TI of opioids is a fairly wide range, so my comment is not entirely correct as written.

I'm glad you brought up paracetamol as well. I find that people often overestimate how dangerous illicit drugs are, while at the same time being totally blase when it comes to stuff you can buy off the shelf at any pharmacy. frankly, I find tylenol kind of scary and try to use it only when absolutely necessary.